DGCA PAPER 1 SERIES I QUESTIONS FOR FEB 2013 EXAM
(SERIES 'I' IS AN IMPORTANT PART FOR PAPER 1 EXAM..every year approx 5 questions always come from this part.)
SERIES ' I '
Q1.When tolerances are unknown regarding magnetic compass pivot friction, it shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle , change in indication from original heading shall not exceed…..
1). 2 degree, 10 degree respectively.
2). 10 degree, 4 degree respectively.
3). 10 degree, 2 degree respectively.
4). 4 degree, 10 degree respectively.
Q2.Maximum overhaul period of ROCI is
1). 3 years
2). 200 hrs
3). As in 1 and 2 whichever is higher
4). As in 1 and 2 whichever is less.
Q3.The shelf life for each type of instrument must be reflected in
1). QC Manual
2). As in 1 and serviceable tag
3). MS manual
4). All
Q4.Instruments installed on a/c, which has not been operated for a continuous period of, shall be subjected to bench check.
1). Three months
2). Four months
3). Five months
4). Six months
Q5.Drift indicator is required for navigation, when seating capacity is .
1). Five
2). More than five
3). Five or more.
Q6 Mark the correct statement
1). A/c used for agro operation shall be fitted with G meter
2). A/c engaged in cloud reading shall be painted with day glow paint at wing tips.
3). When operated in icing conditions shall have means of presenting malfunctioning of ASI
4). All
Q7 All a/c operated at night shall have
1). Red light on RH wing
2). Green light on LH wing
3). White light on the tail
4). All
Q.8 All a/c operating over water beyond a distance of 100 NM from sea shore shall be equipped with at least
1). 1 ELT
2). Water activated ELT
3). 3 ELTs
4). 4 ELTs (water activated)
Q9. Maintenance schedules of test equipment is prepared by
1). Engineering In charge
2). Shop In charge
3). As in 1 and approved by QCM
Q10. Calibration period of instrument/ equipment is given by
1). QCM
2). MSN
3). As in 1& 2 and EOM
4). 1& 2
Q11. Recommended periodicity for air sampling and particle counting for class 3 room is
1). Weekly
2). Daily
3). Monthly
Q12 MTCS regarding clean room
1). The wearing of jewellery should be avoided
2). Solvents contact with hands should be avoided.
3). Female personnel should apply fingernail polish or cosmetics
Q13 Series I part V deals with
1). CVR
2). FDR
3). GPWS
Q14. As detailed in Series I part V the parameters without asterisk are
1). Not required data
2). Mandatory data
3). Depends on pilot
Q15. Which of the following data is/are mandatory to record
1). Radio altitude
2). Pressure altitude
3). Angle of attack, thrust reverse status
4). All
Q16. Type II A FDR shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least last
1). 25 hrs of its operation
2). 30 minutes
3). 20 minutes
Q17. Hot microphone is used in CVR system to ensure clear recording of
1). Co pilot headphone
2). Pilot
3). Aural environment in cabin
4). Aural environment in cockpit
Q18 No. of channels in modern CVR are
1). 2
2). 3
3). 4
4). 5
Q19 Which part of series I deals with GPWS
1). V
2). VI
3). VII
4). VIII
Q20. GPWS should provide as a minimum warning under the following circumstances
1). Flaps not locked down
2). Gear not in landing position
3). Excessive descent below instrument glide path
4). All
Q21 E GPWS should meet the specification given in FAA
1). TSO-C-151
2). TSO-C-117
3). TSO-C-151a
4). TSO-C-117a
Q22 The parameters recorded by type I FDR are
1). Altitude and speed
2). Engine power
3). Configuration
4). As in 1 , 2, 3 and operation
Q23 The parameters recorded by type II FDR are
1). Metal foil FDR shall not be used
2). Photographic film FDR shall be used
3). Analogue equipment using FM shall not be used
4). Only 2 is correct.
Q24. Alternative equipment of two combination records FDR/CVR is applicable to
1). A/c MTOW 5700 Kg
2). A/c MTOW 3180 Kg
3). A/c MTOW more than 5700 Kg
4). None
Q34 QAR/PMR tape preservation period is
1). 30days
2). 15days
3). 20days
4). 60days
Q35
The cassettes pertaining to incidents should be preserved for a period of
1). 30days
2). 15 days
3). 2months
4). None
Q36 Discrete parameters in FDR contains
1). Flaps position
2). EPR
3). As in 2 and landing gear position
4). As in 3 and slats position
Q37 The procedure for documentation in FDR is given in
1). MSM
2). Operational manual
3). QC manual
4). EOM
Q38 MTIS against FDR container
1). Be painted a distinctive red and yellow color
2). Carry reflective material to facilitate its location
3). Attached with a automatically activated underwater locating device
4).
Q39 The location of FDR for pressurized aeroplanes
1). Any convenient place
2). Within the vicinity of flight crew
3). In front of fuselage
4). Within the vicinity of rear pressure bulkhead
Q40 Type II & IIA FDR record
1). 32 parameters
2). At least first 15 parameters
3). 10 parameters
4). 30 parameters
Q41 Type V FDR records
1). 30 parameters
2). Last 15 parameters
3). 10 parameters
4). First 15 parameters
Q42 FDR shall be calibrated every
1). 2 years
2). Yearly
3). 5 years
4). None
Q43. CVR shall be equipped to an aeroplane (Commercial air transport) having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg
2). More than 5700 kg
3). More than 2700 kg
4). None
Q44
A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information for aeroplane
1). First 30 min. of its operation
2). Last 15 min. of its operation
3). First 15 min. of its operation
4). None
Q45
Evaluation of CVR & operational checks are carried out to ensure
1). Continuation of records
2). As in 1& serviceability of recorders
3). The conversation of flight crew
4). All are correct
Q46
All air transport officers carryout a CVR readout to ensure
1). The integrity of recording of CVR
2). Clarity & as in 1
3). Monitoring the performance of flight crew
4). All are correct
Q47 The information recorded by CVR are
1). Voice communication of flight crew
2). Voice or audio signals identifying navigation
3). Aural environment of flight deck & as in 1& 2
4). None
Q48. In case of pressurized a/c the CVR is to be installed and located
1). Any convenient place
2). Near to crew member
3). Front of a/c
4). Vicinity of the rear pressure bulkhead
Q49 MTIS
1). The CVR should be approved type
2). Shall meet the specification of TSO-C-90
3). Any after specification as required by DGCA & as in 2
4). Shall meet the specification of TSO-C-84 and as in 3
Q50. The read out and evaluation record of CVR are all authenticated by
1). QCM
2). Operator
3). Owner
4). DGCA
Q51. The procedure for the inspection of CVR shall be mentioned in
1). Operational manual
2). EOM
3). MSM
4). None
Q52 The specification for GPWS are given in
1). CAA C-90
2). CAA TSO C-92 C
3). FAA TSO C-92 C or any other acceptable to DGCA
4). None of the above
Q53 Installation of GPWS is done by
1). Any organization
2). Manufacturer
3). Approved organization and as in 2
4). As in 2& any organization
Q54 Maintenance of GPWS is done by
1). CAT ‘I’
2). CAT ‘V’
3). CAT ‘I’/ ’R’
4). CAT ‘I’ or ’R’
Q55. Any change in operating procedure of GPWS shall be amended in
1). QCM
2). MSM
3). Opr. Manual
4). QCM/ operational manual
Q56. GPWS equipped with a piston engine a/c having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
2). More than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
3). More than 15000 kg & less than 30 passengers
4). Less than 15000 kg & more than 30 passengers
Q57. GPWS equipped with a turbine engine a/c having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
2). More than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
3). More than 15000 kg & less than 30 passengers
4). Less than 15000 kg & more than 30 passengers
Q58. The forward looking terrain avoidance warning system is commonly known as
1). GPWS
2). GCAS
3). EGPWS
4). As in 2& 3
Q59 GPWS normally provides
1). Excessive terrain closure rate
2). Excessive descent rate
3). Excessive altitude loss
4). All are correct
Q60 De activation procedure of GPWS is as per
1). Opr. Manual
2). QCM
3). MSM
4). Flt. Manual
Q61. Forward looking wind shear warning system is applicable to
1). Reciprocating engine
2). Helicopter
3). Jet aeroplanes
Q62. Forward looking wind shear warning system is applicable to having
1). MTOW more than 5700kg
2). Authorized to carry more than 9 passengers & as in 1
3). MTOW less than 5700 kg
Q63 Forward looking wind shear warning system gives
1). A timely aural and visual warning
2). Information required to permit the pilot to continue with missed approach
3). As in 2 or go ground
4). As in 3 & to execute an escape maneuver
Q64 The function of ACAS II is
1). Threat detection
2). Communication with ground station
3). Generation of RAS
4). Generation of TAS & as in 1, 2& 3
Q65 The specification of ACAS
1). FAA TSO C- 119
2). Annex IV to the convention of ICAO
3). FAA TSO C-119C
4). None
Q66 MTCS
1). TCAS II with change is equivalent to ACAS I
2). TCAS I with change is equivalent to ACAS II
3). TCAS II with change is equivalent to ACAS II
4). All are correct
Q67 “An aid to see & avoid” is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). RA
4). SSR
Q68. A surveillance radar which uses transmitter or interrogator is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). RA
4). SSR
Q69 ACAS I perform
1). Surveillance of near by SSR transponder
2). Identifying the approximate position if near by aeroplanes as an aid to the visual acquisition
3). Generation of TAS
4). Detection of foe
Q70. All turbine engine aeroplane having MTOW more than 5700 kg but not exceeding 15000 kg shall be equipped with
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). Both 1& 2
4). None
Q71 The maintenance of ACAS Is done by-
1). CAT I/V
2). CAT I/R
3). CAT R/V
4). CAT R only
Q72. The certification and inspection of ACAS by AME is given by
1). RAO
2). DGCA
3). Operator
4). QCM
Q73 The maintenance requirement of ACAS equipment for altimetry system is given in
1). QCM
2). MSM
3). Opr. manual
4). None
Q74. Which manual contains the appropriate procedure for the ACAS II or ACAS I
1). AFM
2). Opr. Manual
3). QCM
4). MMP
Q75. The operational procedure and the training required for the flight crew on ACAS is as per
1). Opr. Manual
2). Flight manual
3). As in 1 & training manual
4). QCM
Q76 Equipment which reduces CFIT is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). SSR
4). GPWS
Q77 The color of CVR container is
1). International orange
2). International yellow
3). Either 1or 2
4). Black
Q78. The read out of CVR for integrity & proper function shall be carried out once in
1). 3 months
2). 2 months
3). 6 months
4). 1 month
Q79 EGPWS stands for
1). Extended ground proximity warning system
2). Enhanced ground proximity warning system
3). Exchanged ground proximity warning system
4). Earth & ground proximity warning system
Q80 Series I part II is issued under rule
1). 57 of 1937
2). 9(3) of 1937
3). 29 (c) of 1937
4). 29C & 133a of 1937
81. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the shore the equipments required are
A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
B. two days food.
C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
D. Both A and C are correct.
86. Free air temperature gauge has to be
a. overhauled every year. B. overhauled every 2 years.
b. bench-checked every 2 years. D. bench-checked every 3 years.
87. Temperature required for storing of instruments is
a. 15 degree centigrade. B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade.
b. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. D. below 5 degree centigrade
88. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below
a. 60%. B. 70%.
b. 75%. D. 80%.
89. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed
a. one year. B. two years.
b. four years. D. six years.
90. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed
a. one year.
b. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
c. two years.
d. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
91. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months
a. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use.
b. shall be subject to bench check before use.
c. shall be subject to overhaul before use.
d. All are correct.
92. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with
a. instruments as required. B. equipments as required
b. radio apparatus as required. D. All are correct.
93. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
a. two years. B. three years.
b. five years. D . All are correct.
94. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in
a. FAA TSO C 91a. B. FAR Part 91.
b. B CAR C 91a. D. None of the above.
95. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than
a. 3 g. B. 4 g.
b. 5 g. D. 8 g.
96. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft
A. as far as possible. C. in the Radome section.
B. as aft as possible. D. in the centre of the aircraft.
97. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board
a. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
b. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land.
c. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a possibility of ditching.
d. All are correct.
98. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried on board on long range over water flights by all
a. aircraft. B. private aircraft only.
b. public transport aircraft only. D. non-schedule operators.
99. CHT gauge is mandatory on each
a. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250
b. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 30.
c. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250.
d. Both A and C are correct.
100. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as
a. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail.
b. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail.
c. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail.
d. All are correct.
101. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for
a. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
b. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights.
102. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying at or above
a. FL 180. B. FL 200.
b. FL 220. D. FL 240.
103. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of
a. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. C. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours.
b. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours.
104. Black box contains
a. CVR, FDR/DFDR. C. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR.
b. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS. D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS.
105. An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft
a. having AUW of 3000 kg and above. C. having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
b. having AUW of 15000 kg and above. D. All are correct.
106. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for machines with a seating capacity of more than
a. 100 persons. C. 30 persons.
b. 10 persons. D. 5 persons.
107. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight crew/passenger compartments will be less than
a. 700 metres. C. 600 metres.
b. 375 metres. D. All are correct.
108. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen for
a. all crew members and passengers. C. pilot and co-pilot only.
b. all crew members and 30% passengers. D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
109. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of
a. 4000 metres. C. 7600 metres.
b. 10000 metres. D. 13000 metres.
110. CAR series I part III deals with
a. aircraft equipment. C. aircraft instruments.
b. maintenance of test equipment. D. All are correct.
111. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board
a. pilot and co-pilot. C. one passenger.
b. two passengers. D. pilot and one passenger.
112. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with
a. first aid kit. C. artificial horizon.
b. turn and bank indicator. D. All are correct.
113. All helicopters shall be equipped with
a. RPM indicator for main rotor.
b. Floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land.
c. RPM indicator for tail rotor
d. Both A and C are correct.
114. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than 620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for
a. all crew members. C. for all crew and passengers.
b. for all crew and 10% passengers. D. for all crew and 30% passengers.
115. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced
a. when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hours.
b. when 50% of their useful life has expired.
c. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired.
d. All are correct.
116. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board. Their numbers should be at least
a. 1 of each rating. C. 2 of each rating.
b. 3 of each rating. D. 4 of each rating
117. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with
a. consent of DGCA.
b. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time.
c. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time.
d. None is correct.
118. Ammeters and voltmeters are
a. overhauled every two years. C. bench checked every year.
b. bench checked every two years. D. None is correct.
119. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not exceed
a. one degree. C. two degrees.
b. three degrees. D. five degrees.
120. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel
a. amount to reach the destination. B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination.
b. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed.
c. None of above.
121. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work aircraft
a. 200 hours/180 days. C. 50 hours/30 days.
b. 25 hours/15 days. D. 100 hours/90 days.
122. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of
a. CAR series I part I. C. CAR series I part II.
b. CAR series I part III. D. All the above are correct.
123. Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that
a. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft.
b. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation.
c. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable.
d. All are correct.
124. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated
a. at the time of initial installation of a compass. C. as specified in operator's MS manual.
b. after installation of a new electrical system. D. All are correct.
(SERIES 'I' IS AN IMPORTANT PART FOR PAPER 1 EXAM..every year approx 5 questions always come from this part.)
SERIES ' I '
Q1.When tolerances are unknown regarding magnetic compass pivot friction, it shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle , change in indication from original heading shall not exceed…..
1). 2 degree, 10 degree respectively.
2). 10 degree, 4 degree respectively.
3). 10 degree, 2 degree respectively.
4). 4 degree, 10 degree respectively.
Q2.Maximum overhaul period of ROCI is
1). 3 years
2). 200 hrs
3). As in 1 and 2 whichever is higher
4). As in 1 and 2 whichever is less.
Q3.The shelf life for each type of instrument must be reflected in
1). QC Manual
2). As in 1 and serviceable tag
3). MS manual
4). All
Q4.Instruments installed on a/c, which has not been operated for a continuous period of, shall be subjected to bench check.
1). Three months
2). Four months
3). Five months
4). Six months
Q5.Drift indicator is required for navigation, when seating capacity is .
1). Five
2). More than five
3). Five or more.
Q6 Mark the correct statement
1). A/c used for agro operation shall be fitted with G meter
2). A/c engaged in cloud reading shall be painted with day glow paint at wing tips.
3). When operated in icing conditions shall have means of presenting malfunctioning of ASI
4). All
Q7 All a/c operated at night shall have
1). Red light on RH wing
2). Green light on LH wing
3). White light on the tail
4). All
Q.8 All a/c operating over water beyond a distance of 100 NM from sea shore shall be equipped with at least
1). 1 ELT
2). Water activated ELT
3). 3 ELTs
4). 4 ELTs (water activated)
Q9. Maintenance schedules of test equipment is prepared by
1). Engineering In charge
2). Shop In charge
3). As in 1 and approved by QCM
Q10. Calibration period of instrument/ equipment is given by
1). QCM
2). MSN
3). As in 1& 2 and EOM
4). 1& 2
Q11. Recommended periodicity for air sampling and particle counting for class 3 room is
1). Weekly
2). Daily
3). Monthly
Q12 MTCS regarding clean room
1). The wearing of jewellery should be avoided
2). Solvents contact with hands should be avoided.
3). Female personnel should apply fingernail polish or cosmetics
Q13 Series I part V deals with
1). CVR
2). FDR
3). GPWS
Q14. As detailed in Series I part V the parameters without asterisk are
1). Not required data
2). Mandatory data
3). Depends on pilot
Q15. Which of the following data is/are mandatory to record
1). Radio altitude
2). Pressure altitude
3). Angle of attack, thrust reverse status
4). All
Q16. Type II A FDR shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least last
1). 25 hrs of its operation
2). 30 minutes
3). 20 minutes
Q17. Hot microphone is used in CVR system to ensure clear recording of
1). Co pilot headphone
2). Pilot
3). Aural environment in cabin
4). Aural environment in cockpit
Q18 No. of channels in modern CVR are
1). 2
2). 3
3). 4
4). 5
Q19 Which part of series I deals with GPWS
1). V
2). VI
3). VII
4). VIII
Q20. GPWS should provide as a minimum warning under the following circumstances
1). Flaps not locked down
2). Gear not in landing position
3). Excessive descent below instrument glide path
4). All
Q21 E GPWS should meet the specification given in FAA
1). TSO-C-151
2). TSO-C-117
3). TSO-C-151a
4). TSO-C-117a
Q22 The parameters recorded by type I FDR are
1). Altitude and speed
2). Engine power
3). Configuration
4). As in 1 , 2, 3 and operation
Q23 The parameters recorded by type II FDR are
1). Metal foil FDR shall not be used
2). Photographic film FDR shall be used
3). Analogue equipment using FM shall not be used
4). Only 2 is correct.
Q24. Alternative equipment of two combination records FDR/CVR is applicable to
1). A/c MTOW 5700 Kg
2). A/c MTOW 3180 Kg
3). A/c MTOW more than 5700 Kg
4). None
Q34 QAR/PMR tape preservation period is
1). 30days
2). 15days
3). 20days
4). 60days
Q35
The cassettes pertaining to incidents should be preserved for a period of
1). 30days
2). 15 days
3). 2months
4). None
Q36 Discrete parameters in FDR contains
1). Flaps position
2). EPR
3). As in 2 and landing gear position
4). As in 3 and slats position
Q37 The procedure for documentation in FDR is given in
1). MSM
2). Operational manual
3). QC manual
4). EOM
Q38 MTIS against FDR container
1). Be painted a distinctive red and yellow color
2). Carry reflective material to facilitate its location
3). Attached with a automatically activated underwater locating device
4).
Q39 The location of FDR for pressurized aeroplanes
1). Any convenient place
2). Within the vicinity of flight crew
3). In front of fuselage
4). Within the vicinity of rear pressure bulkhead
Q40 Type II & IIA FDR record
1). 32 parameters
2). At least first 15 parameters
3). 10 parameters
4). 30 parameters
Q41 Type V FDR records
1). 30 parameters
2). Last 15 parameters
3). 10 parameters
4). First 15 parameters
Q42 FDR shall be calibrated every
1). 2 years
2). Yearly
3). 5 years
4). None
Q43. CVR shall be equipped to an aeroplane (Commercial air transport) having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg
2). More than 5700 kg
3). More than 2700 kg
4). None
Q44
A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information for aeroplane
1). First 30 min. of its operation
2). Last 15 min. of its operation
3). First 15 min. of its operation
4). None
Q45
Evaluation of CVR & operational checks are carried out to ensure
1). Continuation of records
2). As in 1& serviceability of recorders
3). The conversation of flight crew
4). All are correct
Q46
All air transport officers carryout a CVR readout to ensure
1). The integrity of recording of CVR
2). Clarity & as in 1
3). Monitoring the performance of flight crew
4). All are correct
Q47 The information recorded by CVR are
1). Voice communication of flight crew
2). Voice or audio signals identifying navigation
3). Aural environment of flight deck & as in 1& 2
4). None
Q48. In case of pressurized a/c the CVR is to be installed and located
1). Any convenient place
2). Near to crew member
3). Front of a/c
4). Vicinity of the rear pressure bulkhead
Q49 MTIS
1). The CVR should be approved type
2). Shall meet the specification of TSO-C-90
3). Any after specification as required by DGCA & as in 2
4). Shall meet the specification of TSO-C-84 and as in 3
Q50. The read out and evaluation record of CVR are all authenticated by
1). QCM
2). Operator
3). Owner
4). DGCA
Q51. The procedure for the inspection of CVR shall be mentioned in
1). Operational manual
2). EOM
3). MSM
4). None
Q52 The specification for GPWS are given in
1). CAA C-90
2). CAA TSO C-92 C
3). FAA TSO C-92 C or any other acceptable to DGCA
4). None of the above
Q53 Installation of GPWS is done by
1). Any organization
2). Manufacturer
3). Approved organization and as in 2
4). As in 2& any organization
Q54 Maintenance of GPWS is done by
1). CAT ‘I’
2). CAT ‘V’
3). CAT ‘I’/ ’R’
4). CAT ‘I’ or ’R’
Q55. Any change in operating procedure of GPWS shall be amended in
1). QCM
2). MSM
3). Opr. Manual
4). QCM/ operational manual
Q56. GPWS equipped with a piston engine a/c having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
2). More than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
3). More than 15000 kg & less than 30 passengers
4). Less than 15000 kg & more than 30 passengers
Q57. GPWS equipped with a turbine engine a/c having MTOW
1). Less than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
2). More than 5700 kg & more than 9 passengers
3). More than 15000 kg & less than 30 passengers
4). Less than 15000 kg & more than 30 passengers
Q58. The forward looking terrain avoidance warning system is commonly known as
1). GPWS
2). GCAS
3). EGPWS
4). As in 2& 3
Q59 GPWS normally provides
1). Excessive terrain closure rate
2). Excessive descent rate
3). Excessive altitude loss
4). All are correct
Q60 De activation procedure of GPWS is as per
1). Opr. Manual
2). QCM
3). MSM
4). Flt. Manual
Q61. Forward looking wind shear warning system is applicable to
1). Reciprocating engine
2). Helicopter
3). Jet aeroplanes
Q62. Forward looking wind shear warning system is applicable to having
1). MTOW more than 5700kg
2). Authorized to carry more than 9 passengers & as in 1
3). MTOW less than 5700 kg
Q63 Forward looking wind shear warning system gives
1). A timely aural and visual warning
2). Information required to permit the pilot to continue with missed approach
3). As in 2 or go ground
4). As in 3 & to execute an escape maneuver
Q64 The function of ACAS II is
1). Threat detection
2). Communication with ground station
3). Generation of RAS
4). Generation of TAS & as in 1, 2& 3
Q65 The specification of ACAS
1). FAA TSO C- 119
2). Annex IV to the convention of ICAO
3). FAA TSO C-119C
4). None
Q66 MTCS
1). TCAS II with change is equivalent to ACAS I
2). TCAS I with change is equivalent to ACAS II
3). TCAS II with change is equivalent to ACAS II
4). All are correct
Q67 “An aid to see & avoid” is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). RA
4). SSR
Q68. A surveillance radar which uses transmitter or interrogator is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). RA
4). SSR
Q69 ACAS I perform
1). Surveillance of near by SSR transponder
2). Identifying the approximate position if near by aeroplanes as an aid to the visual acquisition
3). Generation of TAS
4). Detection of foe
Q70. All turbine engine aeroplane having MTOW more than 5700 kg but not exceeding 15000 kg shall be equipped with
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). Both 1& 2
4). None
Q71 The maintenance of ACAS Is done by-
1). CAT I/V
2). CAT I/R
3). CAT R/V
4). CAT R only
Q72. The certification and inspection of ACAS by AME is given by
1). RAO
2). DGCA
3). Operator
4). QCM
Q73 The maintenance requirement of ACAS equipment for altimetry system is given in
1). QCM
2). MSM
3). Opr. manual
4). None
Q74. Which manual contains the appropriate procedure for the ACAS II or ACAS I
1). AFM
2). Opr. Manual
3). QCM
4). MMP
Q75. The operational procedure and the training required for the flight crew on ACAS is as per
1). Opr. Manual
2). Flight manual
3). As in 1 & training manual
4). QCM
Q76 Equipment which reduces CFIT is
1). ACAS I
2). ACAS II
3). SSR
4). GPWS
Q77 The color of CVR container is
1). International orange
2). International yellow
3). Either 1or 2
4). Black
Q78. The read out of CVR for integrity & proper function shall be carried out once in
1). 3 months
2). 2 months
3). 6 months
4). 1 month
Q79 EGPWS stands for
1). Extended ground proximity warning system
2). Enhanced ground proximity warning system
3). Exchanged ground proximity warning system
4). Earth & ground proximity warning system
Q80 Series I part II is issued under rule
1). 57 of 1937
2). 9(3) of 1937
3). 29 (c) of 1937
4). 29C & 133a of 1937
81. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the shore the equipments required are
A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
B. two days food.
C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
D. Both A and C are correct.
86. Free air temperature gauge has to be
a. overhauled every year. B. overhauled every 2 years.
b. bench-checked every 2 years. D. bench-checked every 3 years.
87. Temperature required for storing of instruments is
a. 15 degree centigrade. B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade.
b. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. D. below 5 degree centigrade
88. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below
a. 60%. B. 70%.
b. 75%. D. 80%.
89. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed
a. one year. B. two years.
b. four years. D. six years.
90. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed
a. one year.
b. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
c. two years.
d. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
91. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months
a. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use.
b. shall be subject to bench check before use.
c. shall be subject to overhaul before use.
d. All are correct.
92. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with
a. instruments as required. B. equipments as required
b. radio apparatus as required. D. All are correct.
93. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
a. two years. B. three years.
b. five years. D . All are correct.
94. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in
a. FAA TSO C 91a. B. FAR Part 91.
b. B CAR C 91a. D. None of the above.
95. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than
a. 3 g. B. 4 g.
b. 5 g. D. 8 g.
96. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft
A. as far as possible. C. in the Radome section.
B. as aft as possible. D. in the centre of the aircraft.
97. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board
a. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
b. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land.
c. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a possibility of ditching.
d. All are correct.
98. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried on board on long range over water flights by all
a. aircraft. B. private aircraft only.
b. public transport aircraft only. D. non-schedule operators.
99. CHT gauge is mandatory on each
a. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250
b. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 30.
c. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250.
d. Both A and C are correct.
100. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as
a. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail.
b. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail.
c. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail.
d. All are correct.
101. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for
a. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
b. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights.
102. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying at or above
a. FL 180. B. FL 200.
b. FL 220. D. FL 240.
103. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of
a. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. C. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours.
b. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours.
104. Black box contains
a. CVR, FDR/DFDR. C. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR.
b. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS. D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS.
105. An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft
a. having AUW of 3000 kg and above. C. having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
b. having AUW of 15000 kg and above. D. All are correct.
106. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for machines with a seating capacity of more than
a. 100 persons. C. 30 persons.
b. 10 persons. D. 5 persons.
107. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight crew/passenger compartments will be less than
a. 700 metres. C. 600 metres.
b. 375 metres. D. All are correct.
108. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen for
a. all crew members and passengers. C. pilot and co-pilot only.
b. all crew members and 30% passengers. D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
109. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of
a. 4000 metres. C. 7600 metres.
b. 10000 metres. D. 13000 metres.
110. CAR series I part III deals with
a. aircraft equipment. C. aircraft instruments.
b. maintenance of test equipment. D. All are correct.
111. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board
a. pilot and co-pilot. C. one passenger.
b. two passengers. D. pilot and one passenger.
112. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with
a. first aid kit. C. artificial horizon.
b. turn and bank indicator. D. All are correct.
113. All helicopters shall be equipped with
a. RPM indicator for main rotor.
b. Floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land.
c. RPM indicator for tail rotor
d. Both A and C are correct.
114. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than 620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for
a. all crew members. C. for all crew and passengers.
b. for all crew and 10% passengers. D. for all crew and 30% passengers.
115. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced
a. when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hours.
b. when 50% of their useful life has expired.
c. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired.
d. All are correct.
116. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board. Their numbers should be at least
a. 1 of each rating. C. 2 of each rating.
b. 3 of each rating. D. 4 of each rating
117. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with
a. consent of DGCA.
b. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time.
c. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time.
d. None is correct.
118. Ammeters and voltmeters are
a. overhauled every two years. C. bench checked every year.
b. bench checked every two years. D. None is correct.
119. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not exceed
a. one degree. C. two degrees.
b. three degrees. D. five degrees.
120. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel
a. amount to reach the destination. B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination.
b. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed.
c. None of above.
121. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work aircraft
a. 200 hours/180 days. C. 50 hours/30 days.
b. 25 hours/15 days. D. 100 hours/90 days.
122. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of
a. CAR series I part I. C. CAR series I part II.
b. CAR series I part III. D. All the above are correct.
123. Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that
a. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft.
b. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation.
c. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable.
d. All are correct.
124. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated
a. at the time of initial installation of a compass. C. as specified in operator's MS manual.
b. after installation of a new electrical system. D. All are correct.