PAPER - II
PART IV
1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generallya) Rudder control should not be locked
b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward
c) Flats of the hands should only be used
d) All are correct
2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency
a) It should be towed away fast
b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres
c) Brakes should never be applied
d) All are correct
3. For picketing a light aircraft
a) Cable or any rope should be used
b) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropes
c) Aircraft should be parked into the wind
d) Both a) & c) are correct
4. Before jacking an aircraft
a) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panels
c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment
5. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why?
a) To set the weighing scales to zero
b) To stabilize the weighing scales
c) For first determining its empty weight
d) For making aircraft level
6. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work
(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
7. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a
a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw
c) Back saw d) Wood saw
8. A cross cut saw has
a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch
c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch
9. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw
a) It is used for cutting precision parts
b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch
c) It is same as hacksaw
d) Cutting teeth has very little set
10. Hacksaw blades are
a) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in length
c) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch
11. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steel
ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for the return stroke
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
12. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
13. Length of hacksaw is measured from
a) The outer edge b) toothed part of blades
c) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct
14. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are
a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in diameter
c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct
15. A screw driver can be used
a) For driving screws b) As a punch
c) As a chisel d) All are correct
16. Stubby screw driver has
a) A blunt edge b) Blade length of up to 2”
c) Only wooden handle d) All are correct
17. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called
a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver
c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above
18. Air driven power screw driver should be used
a) For large diameter screw
b) For removing screw that are jammed
c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back
d) When removing screws from harder material
19. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at least
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 75% d) 90%
20. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver
ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
21. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement
a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel
b) These are generally die cast
c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes
d) These are plated to improve their appearance
22. Open end wrenches
a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted space
b) Are available in British & Metric sizes
c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches
d) All are correct
23. Box end wrenches are used
a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light
b) Where there is restricted space
c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size
d) When open end wrench is not available
24. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have
a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box end
c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct
25. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used
ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrench
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
26. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench
ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
27. Spanners are classified by
a) Type b) Material
c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct
28. Set spanners are off set to an angle
a) So that it can be used in restricted places
b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over
c) For proper grip
d) Both a) & b) are correct
29. Ratchets
a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement
b) Are available with long and short handles
c) Can easily fit into sockets
d) All are correct
30. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used
a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench
c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct
31. Monel metal is an alloy of
a) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromium
c) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium
32. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.
ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
33. SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
34. Engine mounts are made up of
a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel
b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel
c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel
d) None of these
35. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel
36. Weldability is poorest in case of
a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel
c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron
37. Carbon steel is
a) Refined form of cast iron
b) Extremely hard
c) Made by adding carbon to steel
d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous
38. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of
a) Silicon b) Cobalt
c) Chromium d) Manganese
39. Manganese is added to low carbon steel to
a) Make them tough & hard b) Raise their tensile strength
c) Improve machine ability d) Increase corrosion resistance
40. Cold bending of an aluminium sheet
a) Is not permitted
b) Softens the material at the bend
c) Strain hardens material at the bend
d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius
41. Titanium can be identified by
a) Chemical test b) Spark test
c) Moistening & scratching with pencil d) Both b) & c) are correct
42. L shaped channels are produced by
a) Forging b) Extrusion
c) Machining d) Casting
43. Muntz metal is used for
a) Nuts & bolts b) Parts in contact with salt water
c) Fuel & oil lines d) Both a) & b) are correct
44. All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has
a) Two critical points b) Three critical points
c) Four critical points d) Six critical points
45. In steel, grain becomes coarser when
a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point
b) It is heated above critical range
c) Depends upon carbon percentage
d) It does not happen at all
46. Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct
47. Magnesium alloys are
a) Magnetic b) Light in weight
c) Cheap & easy to machine d) Highly prone to corrosion
48. i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property
ii) Duralumin can be age hardened
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
49. i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic pressure
ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
50. Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results in
a) Retarded age hardening b) Reduced corrosion resistance
c) Dull/Strained surface d) Hard/brittle surface
51. Power and work are measured in
a) Watt and force b) Watt and joule
c) Ampere hour and joule d) Farad and joule
52. One micron is
a) 10-3 meter b) 10-6 meter
c) 10-9 meter d) None of these
53. The change in resistance depends upon
a) Temperature b) Material and length
c) Cross sectional area d) Both b) and c) are correct
54. Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables is
a) Rubber and silk b) Nylon and cotton
c) Teflon d) Both b) & c) are correct
55. In a parallel circuit
a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor
b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed
c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance
d) All are correct
56. If there are „n‟ numbers of calls, each having a voltage of „E‟ and resistance „R‟, then voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will indicate
a) nE b) (n-1)E
c) n(n - ½)E d) None of these
57. A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V battery. Its resistance and power will be
a) 36 ohms, 4 W b) 4 ohms, 36 W
c) 1 ohm, 12 W d) None of these
58. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is determined by the
a) Size of the panel b) Type of the panel
c) Weight of the complete panel unit d) Number of instruments to be installed
59. Aircraft instrument panels are shock mounted to
a) Absorb all vibrations
b) Absorb low frequency, high amplitude shocks
c) Channel most airframe vibrations to the instruments
d) Absorb high frequency, high amplitude shocks
60. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on
a) Instrument manufacturer b) Design of the instrument case
c) Design of the aircraft fuselage d) Design of the instrument panel
61. How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?
a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panel
b) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel
c) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel
d) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction
62. Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel cases?
a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenance
b) To facilitate removal or installation
c) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields
d) To reduce heat build up in the instrument
63. When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked?
a) An authorised inspector b) The aircraft owner
c) The instrument installer d) The instrument manufacturer
64. i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks.
ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under conditions of minor vibrations.
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
65. Assembler is
a) An individual who assembles computer b) Language
c) Programme d) None of these
66. Input unit of a computer communicates between
a) Operator & computer b) Memory with printer
c) CPU with monitor d) Output & computer
67. Primary memory of a computer are
a) RAM, ROM b) RAM, ROM, PROM
c) RAM, ROM, CPU d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc
68. Hard disc & floppies are
a) For different purpose
b) For same purpose but hard disc stores more information
c) For same purpose but hard disc stores less information
d) None of these
69. The symbol for hexa-decimal is
a) 2 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16
70. Algorithm uses
a) One input, one output b) One input, two output
c) One input, multiple output d) None of these
71. To solve a fifteen step problem, a computer will work in
a) Sequence b) Repetition
c) Selection d) Sequence and repetition
72. Which of the following is a storage device?
a) Mouse b) Monitor
c) CPU d) Hard disk
73. RAM stands for
a) Read & access memory b) Random access memory
c) Record and maintain d) None of these
74. Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage by
a) Shock mounts b) Aluminium alloy jumpers
c) Doubler plates around the mounting points d) All are correct
75. To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot uses
a) VOR receiver b) VHF trans receiver
c) HF transmitter d) ADF
76. Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affect
a) Maximum gross weight and datum b) CG limits and useful load
c) Empty weight and useful load d) Useful load only
77. i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductor
ii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied current
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
78. Basic components of a communication system are
a) Receiver & transmitter
b) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennas
c) As in b) plus microphone
d) As in c) plus loudspeaker
79. Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order of
a) 1-15 watts b) 20-30 watts
c) 50-100 watts d) 150-200 watts
80. An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to transmit & receive
a) Audible signals b) Visual signal
c) Electro magnetic energy d) All are correct
PAPER - II
PART IV
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B
41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. B
46. C 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A
56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B
61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. C
66. A 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A
71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B
76. C 77. C 78. D 79. C 80.