6 Feb 2014

PAPER - II PART V

PAPER - II
PART V
1. Angular momentum is

a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)
2. Mark the incorrect statement
a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.
b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.
c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.
d) None of the above
3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:
a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate
b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.
c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude
d) All of these
4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as
a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each other is termed as
a) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift
6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by a relief value at
a) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None
7. Grip length of the bolt is
a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt
c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these
8. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is
a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer
c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer
9. AN 4 - 7 bolt shows
a) 7/8” dia b) 1/4" length c) 4” length d) 1/4" dia
10. Bolt of class 4 fit is
a) Loose fit b) Free fit c) Close fit d) Tight fit
11. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where
a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down
c) It can be used any where d) None of these
12. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is
a) AN 936 b) AN 935 c) AN 970 d) AN 960
13. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is
a) Plain nut b) Castle nut c) Castellated shear nut d) Self locking nut
14. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)
a) 2d to 4d b) 8d c) 6d d) 75% of the pitch
15. Rasp file is used for
a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather
c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather
16. Pinning is related to
a) Chisels b) Punches c) Screw drivers d) None of these
17. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of
a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 930
18. Snaps are used to
a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
19. Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be machined or filed away
a) Pin punch b) Stout punch c) Light centre punch d) Parallel pin punch
20. Hand file is related to _______ of file
a) Length of file b) Cut of file c) Grade of file d) Section of files
21. Screw drivers are classified by
a) Type and length of blade b) Type, grade, cut and section
c) Length and type d) Overall length of screw driver
22. Steel drifts should be used
a) On soft materials b) For driving ball or roller bearing
c) Hardened steel d) None of these
23. Ring spanners are used for
a) Fitting the nut all around b) Fitting the nut from opened jaws
c) Fitting the splined nut d) None of these
24. Hard hammers are made of
a) High carbon steel b) Carbon steel and forged to shape and size
c) Tool steel d) Mild steel
25. Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connections
a) Zinc chloride b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcohol
c) Alcoholic solution of rosin d) Rosin
26. Slotting hacksaw blade is usually of
a) 18” long 3/4" wide b) 8” long 1/2" wide
c) 12” long 3/4" wide d) None of these
27. Hacksaw is used by
a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke
b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward stroke
c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroke
d) Any of these
28. Which hammers have large, smooth faces and are lightweight?
a) Ball peen hammers b) Body hammers
c) Cross peen hammers d) Sledge hammers
29. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1
30. The stresses to which Aircraft are subjected are
a) Tension b) Torsion c) Bending d) All of these
31. The internal force of a substance which opposes the deformation is called
a) Strain b) Stress c) Tension d) Torsion
32. The twisting load on the structure is called
a) Torsion b) Tension c) Strain d) Compression
33. Bending stress is the combination of
a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension
c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear
34. Permanent deformation of structure is called
a) Stress b) Strain c) Tension d) Bend
35. In monocoque fuselage construction, main members are
a) Frame, bulk head, longerons b) Bulkhead, stringers, longerons
c) Formers, frame assembly and bulkhead d) Longerons, stringers and frames
36. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by
a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons
37. A semi monocoque construction fuselage is made of
a) Bulkhead and frame b) Frame, longerons and stringer
c) Bulkhead, frame, longerons & stringers d) Bulkhead, frame & formers
38. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries
a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of the load
39. The cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit to hold air pressure
a) More than atmosphere pressure b) Less than atmosphere pressure
c) Equal to atmosphere pressure d) None of these
40. To check the cabin for air tightness is called
a) Cabin static pressure test b) Cabin dynamic pressure test
c) Leak check d) All of these
41. An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motion
a) Decreases with time b) Increases with time
c) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of these
42. The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is known as
a) Lateral dihedral b) Longitudinal dihedral
c) Normal dihedral d) Vertical dihedral
43. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on
a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage
c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these
44. Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizer
a) It always produces nose up pitching moment
b) It always produces nose down pitching moment
c) Either a) or b) depending upon the design
d) Provides no pitching moment
45. Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircraft
a) Towards upper wing b) To downward
c) Towards the lower wing d) All of these
46. Rotating the control wheel clockwise will move
a) The right aileron upward b) The right aileron downward
c) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up d) As in a) & flight spoiler on left wing up
47. At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or unacceptable structural loading or wing twist, devices used are
a) Flaps b) Slots c) Outboard ailerons
d) Inboard ailerons
48. The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an Aircraft is
a) Side surfaces b) The fuselage c) Tail plane d) None of these
49. Dihedral angle on the main planes provide with
a) Longitudinal stability b) Dynamic stability
c) Lateral stability d) Horizontal stability
50. Aft moment of the control stick will cause
a) Both elevators to move up b) Both elevators to move down
c) Left elevator will move up and right will move down d) Movement of horizontal stabilizer
51. Minimising the expression
Y=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output is
a) Y=A b) Y=1 c) Y=A+ AB d) Y=AB
52. Y= Σ (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63)
a) Y=EF b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF d) Y=BD
53. In excess –3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written as
a) 9 b) 1011 c) 1100 d) 1001
54. If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use
a) AND gate b) OR gate c) XOR gate d) XNOR gate
55. Which series of IC‟s is used for military purpose?
a) 7400 series b) 74H00 series c) 5400 series d) 74 L S 00 series
56. If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on required output lines, we will tie date line to
a) OV b) Ground c) Either a) or b) d) +VCC
57. Which of the following relation is correct?
a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd] b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]
c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd] a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]
58. Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unit
a) Feedback action b) Amplifying action
c) Oscillating action d) All of these
59. In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop is
a) Reset b) Set c) No change d) Forbidden
60. In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will be
a) S=R b) R=S c) Both of these
d) None of above
61. Operating frequency of marker beacon is
a) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHz
c) 100 MHz fixed d) 75 MHz fixed
62. The facilities provided by a localiser is
a) Give indication of correct descending angle
b) Distance from touch down point
c) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runway
d) None of these
63. The correct descending angle is approximately
a) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 2.25 degrees d) 2.75 degrees
64. The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicates
a) Reading is correct b) Partially correct
c) Incorrect & misleading d) None
65. The middle marker carrier is modulated on
a) 3000Hz b) 1300Hz c) 400Hz d) 4000Hz
66. Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out by
a) ARINC 249 b) ARINC 429 c) ARINC 629 d) Both b) & c)
67. How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft?
a) 1 b) 2 c) Minimum 3 d) Minimum 4
68. The control segment of GPS consists of
a) A ground station b) Various ground based monitoring stations
c) A master control station d) Both b) & c)
69. Basically, GPS consists of
a) One independent segment b) Two independent segment
c) Three independent segment d) Four independent segment
70. The purpose of weather radar is
a) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather exist
b) To inform pilot of pleasant weather
c) To inform about clouds
d) None of these
71. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx.
a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi
72. A four pole generator will have
a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole c) 6 interpole d) 8 interpole
73. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is
a) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart d) 180o apart
74. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method
used is
a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these
75. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to
a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field
c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above
76. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to
a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant output
c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above
77. A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of
a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s
78. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect
a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing
c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these
79. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold
a) 42000  10% b) 42000  5% c) 12000  5% d) 22000  10%
80. AC generator works on the principle of
a) Faraday‟s law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction
c) Self induction d) All of these
PAPER - II
PART V
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. C
46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. A
51. B 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. C
56. D 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. C
61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B
66. D 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. A
71. A 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. D
76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. A