PAPER - II
PART VIII
1. Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both?a) Rockwell hardness test b) Brinell hardness test
c) Shore Scleroscope d) Vicker‟s hardness test
2. Flattening test is
a) Bending test b) Only for copper wires c) For tube testing d) Both a) & c)
3. Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is
a) 50 b) 60 c) 10 d) 40
4. Izod test measures
a) Toughness b) Height of upswing c) Energy in breaking d) Hardness
5. Fatigue test is for determining
a) Stress in material b) Strain in rod
c) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire
6. Torsion test is essential for
a) Wires b) Tube c) Rods d) Sheet
7. Bending test indicates
a) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Hardness d) Density
8. 250 HB 10 indicates
a) Strength only b) Hardness only c) Both a) & b) d) Toughness
9. Unit of tension is
a) N b) N/m c) KN/m2 d) Kg/cm2
10. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is
a) Pig Iron b) Wrought Iron
c) Cast Iron d) Steel
11. Siderite is
a) Oxide ore of Iron b) Carbonate ore of Iron
c) Sulphide ore of Iron d) Flux used in furnace
12. Coke used in blast furnace is
a) Fuel b) Flux
c) Reducing agent d) Both fuel & reducing agent
13. In upper reduction zone, we get
a) Iron b) Carbon dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide d) Both Fe & CO2
14. Steel is alloyed to improve
a) Hardenability b) Toughness
c) Fatigue strength d) All of the above
15. Cast Iron sparks are
a) Red b) White
c) Straw coloured d) First Red then Straw coloured
16. Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is
a) 18 – 8 steel b) Medium carbon steel
c) 18 – 6 steel d) Silicon steel
. Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)
a) Ni – Cr b) Ni – V
c) W – Ni d) Cr – Ni
18. Forging steel is
a) Low Carbon steel b) Medium Carbon steel
c) High Carbon steel d) Either a) or c)
19. Exhaust collector is made up of
a) Silicon steel b) Titanium steel
c) Chromium steel d) Ni – Cr steel
20. Which element is responsible for „Red hardness‟ property?
a) Ti b) Ta c) Mo d) W
21. Which elements are responsible for „Penetration hardness‟?
a) Mn, S b) Mn, P c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C
22. „Stainless steel‟ is
a) Ni – Cr steel b) Cr – Mo steel c) Ni – W steel d) Cr – Va steel
23. Silicon in steel acts as
a) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser c) Impurity d) Both b) & c)
24. Mark the correct statement
a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel
b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength
c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings
25. Steel is preheated before welding to
a) Include strength b) Enhance its creep resistance
c) Enhance its creep resistance
26. Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is
a) SAE 4140 b) SAE 6150 c) SAE 1015
27. Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is
a) SAE 4135 b) SAE 4615 c) SAE 6115
28. Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is
a) SAE 8620 b) SAE 8630 c) SAE 9260
29. Pyrometer is used to
a) Measure the temperature b) Protect the furnace
c) Give protective atmosphere
30. The fastest rate of cooling is given by
a) Brine b) Oil c) Water
31. The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as
a) Round head b) Shop head c) Flat head d) Brazier head
32. O ring packings are used for preventing
a) Internal leak b) External leak c) One direction leak
d) Both a) & b)
33. Gaskets are made of
a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these
34. While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diameter
a) 90% b) 25% c) 75% d) 80%
35. Deep permanent impression in the hose produced by the pressure of hose clamp is known as
a) Hot flow b) Deep flow c) Cold flow d) None of these
36. In hex bolt, the length is measured
a) Under the head to the end of the bolt b) Plain portion of the shank
c) Total length d) Threaded length
37. Aircraft bolts are made of
a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel c) Aluminum alloy
d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy
38. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are
a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these
39. Vegetable based fluid is normally
a) Pink b) Yellow c) Almost colourless d) None of these
40. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these
41. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is
a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these
42. When no services are operated in open centre system, the pressure value in the system is
a) At low value b) At high value
c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir d) Both a) & c)
43. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with
a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir
b) To maintain the normal built up pressure
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
44. Thermal relief value fitted in the hydraulic system operates at a pressure
a) Slightly higher than normal system pressure
b) Relieve only a small quantity of fluid
c) At lower than the system pressure
d) Both a) & b)
45. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for
a) To maintain the normal system pressure
b) To safe guard the operation of the important services
c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services
d) Both b) & c)
46. Restrictor valve fitted in the hydraulic system for
a) Allowing free flow of fluid in one direction b) Limited flow in other direction
c) To control the pressure d) Both a) & b)
47. Packing is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt
48. Running seals are
a) Packing b) Gasket c) Wiper d) None of these
49. Washer (gasket) used for spark plug is
a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these
50. Gasket used on uneven or varying space is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Copper d) All of these
51. Seals used for cleaning and lubricating is called
a) Wiper b) Gasket c) Packing d) None of these
52. Fuel used for turbo jet engine is
a) Gasoline b) Aviation kerosene c) Petrol d) None of these
53. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of
a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5
54. Relative density of AVTUR fuel is
a) 0.80 b) Shop head
d) Both a) & b)
d) All of these
c) 75%
c) Cold flow
a) Under the head to the end of the bolt
d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy
d) All of these
c) Almost colourless
b) Vegetable
a) One only
c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir
c) Both a) & b)
d) Both a) & b)
d) Both b) & c)
d) Both
c) Synthetic or natural rubber
a) Packing
b) Copper
b) Cork
a) Wiper
b) Aviation kerosene
b) 0.72
b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.72
55. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of
a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns
56. The source of pressurised air in piston engine aircraft is
a) Compressor b) Supercharger c) Turbo charger d) Both b) & c)
57. Component fitted in pressurisation system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure to a sage value is
a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller
58. To maintain a free flow of ventilation air within the aircraft when parked the component is filled to
a) Safety value b) Ground automatic relief value c) outflow value d) Both a) & c)
59. Roots type blower pressurised and send air to cabin duct by taking
a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d) None of these
60. Engine driven cabin compressor which is used on turbo prop aircraft, its output pressure is controlled
a) Automatically b) Manually c) Not controlled d) Both a) & b)
61. The working fluid used in reciprocating engine is
a) Solid fuel b) Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel / Air Mixture d) All of these
62. Mark the correct statement
a) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
b) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
c) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
d) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
63. To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine uses
a) Turbine driven compressor b) Pressure rise due to combustion
c) Positive displacement, piston type compressor d) Both a) & c) are correct
64. Piston engine classified according to
a) Thrust b) No. of stroke
c) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft d) Both b) & c)
65. Radial engine classified as
a) Upright, inverted b) According to no. of rows
c) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft d) Both a) & c)
66. The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a capacitor
a) To reduce the voltage gain b) To increase the voltage gain
c) Causes thermal runaway d) Stabilises the Q point
67. A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this condition
a) Both the junctions are forward-biased
b) Both the junctions are reverse-biased
c) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biased
d) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased
68. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to
a) Limit the input ac signal going to the base b) Make the operating point almost independent of β
c) Reduce the dc base current d) Reduce the cost of the circuit
69. For generating 1 KHz note, the most suitable circuit is
a) Hartley Oscillator b) Colpits Oscillator
c) Tuned-collector Oscillator d) Wein-bridge Oscillator
70.To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit is
a) Wein-bridge Oscillator b) Phase shift Oscillator
c) Colpits Oscillator d) Hartley Oscillator
71. Weather radar works on
a) Echo system b) LOS system c) VHF system d) HF system
72. Antenna size for DME is
a) 1λ b) ½ λ c) λ/4 d) λ/8
73. EDAS means
a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system
b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system
c) Electronics digital and avionics system
d) None of these
74. The purpose of EDAS is
a) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display system
b) To reduce the work load of the pilot
c) To reduce the space in the Aircraft
d) All of these
75. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they provide coverage between
a) Longitude 750 b) Between latitude 750 North and South
c) Both a) & b) above d) None of these
76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder being__________
a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm
77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to the centre electrode is
a) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC
78. Fast Erection system is supplied with
a) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC d) None
79. Erection rate of normal erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
80. Erection rate of fast erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
PAPER - II
PART VIII
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B
26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. D
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B
51. A 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A
56. D 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A
61. C 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B
66. D 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B
76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. D
PAPER - II